Nexus7
Well-known member
The most obvious is their using modern cultivars as reference groups. When a 1920's Colombian shows "berry" ancestry you can obviously discard that as noise. It can also give the impression that a 1979 Oaxacan is derived from skunk when opposite is more likely to be true.
Let's take Skunk#1 as an example. This plant is from the Skunkman himself, we know what it's ancestry proportions should look like. 100% skunk, right?
It still looks like a 85% match and the rest can be interpreted as being the margin of error we have to deal with at this point. When we're looking at landraces that can be interpreted as little more than "noise" but in the question of Skunk we can assume that it does actually contain ancestry similar to hemp, og kush, cbd.. those markers just arent present in their skunk sample and their method interprets the results like this.
So there are things Phylos can and can't do very well. What I think it does do pretty well is show the contamination of landraces by modern hybrids because the Skunk and Ogkush have a very specific combination of markers that clusters them away from the larger landrace branch in the three dimensional Phylos galaxy. It also works very well in showing the proportions of the landrace (NLD) and hemp (very widespread) specific ancestry.
Have you perhaps considered:
A small part of 1920 Colombian genes made it's way into berry strains?
1979 Oaxacan is a Mexican pheno of old school Skunk? Or a skunk x Mex hybrid? (I think I remember Dubi doing an S1 with some 9 week phenos!) It actually relates to the Afghan/skunk and not skunk#1 right?
Skunk#1 only 85% matches "skunk" because some Skunk#1 genes made it's way in OG-Kush and it had a little hemp/cbd ancestry too?